PPC/OMM Exam 1 Practice

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• A blood pressure reading of 155/95 mmHg would be categorized as what?
• In counterstrain technique, how long is a typical tender point held in the position of ease?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a tissue abnormality in somatic dysfunction notes?
• Extreme Obesity BMI is defined as which range?
• Which phenomenon results in increased brightness below a cyst or fluid-filled structure due to reduced attenuation?
• Tenderness is always what?
• Which item is included specifically under the Objective data as part of the general examination?
• Which of the following is a TART finding?
• Indirect technique: which statement describes indirect treatment?
• In SOAP notes, which section includes the clinician's physical findings, vital signs, and test results?
• In Color Doppler, which color indicates flow away from the transducer?
• Hypernea describes what?
• Which statement defines Underweight BMI?
• A body mass index of 28 kg/m^2 falls into which category?
• Direct Treatments: Which of the following is a direct treatment?
• What does Echogenicity refer to?
• Power Doppler is best described as?
• Spring Test assesses which of the following?
• What is the primary purpose of evaluating the thoracic inlet in osteopathic assessment?
• Which probe is used for deeper structures?
• The quote 'Flung to the breeze the banner of osteopathy' is associated with which year?
• What is the overall goal of osteopathic manipulative treatment?
• What is a key distinction of Cranial Osteopathy compared with other OMM techniques?
• Fascial restriction contributes to somatic dysfunction by:
• What are Chapman's points used for in OMM?
• Which mechanism best describes the action of diaphragms in promoting lymphatic flow?
• How does diaphragmatic mobility relate to lymphatic drainage in OMM?
• How would you differentiate rib inhalation dysfunction from rib exhalation dysfunction on palpation?
• In ultrasound probe handling, what does Pivot describe?
• Which of the following is a part of the Somatic System?
• Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than what value?
• Which ultrasound term describes structures that appear completely black on the image and are typically fluid-filled?
• Obesity BMI is defined as which range?
• How does somatic dysfunction interact with the autonomic nervous system?
• Which patient factors might influence the choice of OMM technique?
• A body mass index of 46 kg/m^2 falls into which category?
• A key risk when performing HVLA in the cervical spine on a patient with underlying vascular disease is?
• Functional Barrier is defined as?
• In ultrasound probe manipulation, what does Rotation refer to?
• Rotation in many spinal segments occurs around which axis?
• Which structures are most directly affected by thoracic inlet dysfunction and can influence breathing and lymphatic drainage?
• In Color Doppler, which color indicates flow toward the transducer?
• CR I refers to what?
• In MET, what is the expected tissue response after the contraction is released?
• Which of the following is NOT typically included in the Plan?
• Which item comes after Review of Systems in the History and Physical Exam order?
• Compared to oral temperatures, which sites are typically lower?
• How should MET be taught to a patient?
• Dynamic Asymmetry refers to an asymmetry evident during movement or energy forces producing movement. Which option best captures this idea?
• Chapmans reflex points are used in OMM to:
• Which of the following describes a TART finding?
• A blood pressure reading of 115/75 mmHg would be categorized as what?
• Which temperature corresponds to the average oral temperature?
• Which option is a part of the Somatic System?
• What is the average normal respiratory rate for infants?
• Which steps ensure patient safety after an OMM session?
• In counterstrain, what is the guiding principle for selecting a position of ease?
• Which tissue typically appears bright on ultrasound due to high reflectivity?
• The Physiological Barrier limits which ROM?
• Which description matches Passive ROM?
• In MET, how is the patient instructed to perform contractions?
• In articulatory technique, what is the main principle?
• Which ultrasound phenomenon occurs when the angle of insonation causes beams to reflect away from the transducer, producing a darker image?
• Functional Barrier is defined as?
• Which statement best differentiates direct from indirect osteopathic techniques?
• Which sign might indicate thoracic inlet compression?
• What is a ligament?
• In the Examination Sequence of Palpation, which step directly follows observation?
• B-Mode imaging provides which type of image?
• Which cranial structure is central to SBS assessment and cranial techniques?
• What is the primary function of the ultrasound transducer?
• What does adjusting GAIN primarily affect on the ultrasound image?
• In OA somatic dysfunction, which relation describes how rotation and side-bending occur?
• Which statement best describes how somatic dysfunction can influence autonomic tone?
• What term describes fast breathing rate?
• Identify two general safety considerations when applying OMM.
• In palpation assessment for somatic dysfunction, which trio is central?
• Which of the following is NOT a common osteopathic treatment modality in OMM?
• Lordosis is described as which of the following?
• If wavelength increases, frequency does what?
• Which of the following is typically included in Past Medical History (PMHx)?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Primary Four Vital Signs?
• Which data element would you expect to be documented in the Objective portion of a patient note?
• What are two common signs of a rib dysfunction on palpation?
• Samuel Hahnemann is best known as the inventor of which field?
• What is a common endpoint cue indicating a successful HVLA, in practice?
• Tilt/Toggle corresponds to which probe maneuver?
• Which tissue type is described as masses of connective tissue large enough to be visible to the unaided eye and composed of collagen?
• Which term refers to what the examiner finds during examination?
• Which ultrasound phenomenon occurs when the angle of insonation causes beams to reflect away from the transducer, resulting in a darker image?
• In the Assessment, the differential diagnosis should be listed in order of what?
• How would you classify a cranial dysfunction that affects SBS alignment?
• What should the beginning of the Chief Complaint include?
• Which spinal condition is defined as abnormal lateral curvature?
• Which artifact occurs when the ultrasound beam repeatedly bounces between two strong reflectors, giving rise to multiple echoes that simulate a deeper structure?
• Hyperechoic describes which kind of image?
• What is the effect of increasing wavelength on the depth of the image seen?
• Which option is a part of the Somatic System?
• Which phenomenon occurs when cysts and liquids attenuate less sound, making the region below the fluid-filled structure appear brighter?
• What role do the diaphragms play in OMM assessment and treatment?
• Which statement best describes Cranial Osteopathy compared with other OMM techniques?
• Chapman reflex points are used in visceral assessment to?
• What should you always start your History of Present Illness with?
• Which statement best describes Color Doppler?
• Which statement characterizes the primary respiratory mechanism in cranial theory?
• What is the typical landmark orientation of the lumbar facet joints?
• What does CC stand for in patient history?
• After an OMM session, which post-treatment sign would most strongly suggest improvement?
• BLT stands for which of the following?
• Which term describes rapid, deep breathing?
• Which mechanism best explains how OMM can improve lymphatic drainage?
• In spinal assessment, which axis is most associated with vertebral rotation?
• B-Mode imaging is primarily used to display which type of information?
• What does SOAP stand for in clinical documentation?
• Which feature indicates a chronic limitation of motion due to permanent shortening of tissue?
• Which option best defines 'Bullets points'?
• Why is proper patient positioning critical for HVLA?
• Indirect Treatments: Which is an indirect treatment?
• Which breathing pattern is described by periodic deep breaths alternating with apnea?
• Which principle states that Structure and Function are reciprocally interrelated?
• What is the role of palpation in guiding diagnosis and treatment?
• What are three absolute contraindications to HVLA?
• Hypotonic refers to which of the following?
• Which term describes unpredictable irregular breathing?
• What ultrasound term describes a structure that appears slightly darker than surrounding tissue, yielding a weaker image?
• Tri-Planar Motion of the Spine includes which movements?
• What do you include in your HPI?
• Which sign characterizes acute somatic dysfunction in the skin?
• Which artifact results when sound encounters high-attenuating tissues and creates a dark area behind the structure?
• Prehypertension is defined as which range?
• SALS orientation corresponds to which axis?
• What is the normal adult respiratory rate?
• LALS stands for which orientation?
• In chronic somatic dysfunction, which best describes the muscle tone?
• Which of the following represents the Primary Four Vital Signs?
• Which tissue is described as superficial fascia, consisting of collagen and visible to the unaided eye?
• Symmetry during palpation is important because:
• Scoliosis is characterized by which curvature?
• Which are two common sacral somatic dysfunction patterns?
• What is the normal resting heart rate range for an adult?
• In the TART framework, which component refers to changes in tissue texture?
• Static Asymmetry is best described as a difference observed when the body is at rest. Which of the following statements is correct?
• Which adjustment is specifically used to focus the ultrasound beam at a selectable depth?
• Which artifact arises when the ultrasound beam encounters two strong parallel reflectors and the transducer interprets a deeper structure?
• In what year did A. T. Still open the first osteopathic medical school?
• Which statement best describes the primary concept behind cranial osteopathy?
• Palpation contributes to diagnosing somatic dysfunction by:
• Which statement accurately describes the relationship between primary respiratory mechanism and secondary respiratory influences in cranial theory?
• Which term describes non-tissue structures that appear on an image due to the imaging process?
• Which principle describes the body's capacity for self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance?
• Tachypnea is defined as what?
• Which probe is typically used for deeper structures?
• Which probe is best for more superficial structures?
• Which term describes ROM initiated and completed by the patient without assistance?
• Kyphosis is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement about ROS is true?
• Which term indicates recent onset in somatic dysfunction?
• In osteopathic manipulative medicine assessment, global motion is used to evaluate what?
• Rib spring testing is performed by:
• What is a tendon?
• What three elements are central to somatic dysfunction assessment in palpation?
• HVLA stands for which of the following?
• How does increasing the frequency affect image resolution in ultrasound?
• A blood pressure reading of 130/85 mmHg would be categorized as what?
• LALS orientation corresponds to which axis?
• If a patient experiences severe pain during an OMM procedure, the clinician should?
• What does TART stand for in somatic dysfunction assessment?
• In ultrasound, increasing frequency results in what change to attenuation?
• What does TART stand for in OMM palpation?
• Which item is included in the Plan according to the study material?
• Which artifact is produced when a smooth, flat object causes the beam to reflect multiple times, leading to a series of linear echoes?
• Name one common indication for cranial therapy.
• What is the basic concept of Muscle Energy Technique (MET)?
• SALS stands for which orientation?
• In counterstrain, what is a common example of a tender-point duration?
• Indirect Osteopathic Treatment involves what?
• Which statement about the Review of Systems (ROS) is true?
• Which skin description is associated with chronic somatic dysfunction?
• Which information is included in Social History notes?
• What are the four tasks included in the 4 Corners of Ultrasound?
• Static Asymmetry is defined as a difference observed when the body is not actively moving. Which option best matches this concept?
• A body mass index of 33 kg/m^2 falls into which category?
• Direct Osteopathic Treatment is best described as which action?
• Allopathy is defined as which of the following?
• Quantity ROM is assessed from which ROM measurements?
• Which option is a part of the Somatic System?
• The lumbar facet joints orientation suggests which primary motions?
• Heel-Toe in is the name of which probe maneuver?
• A key safety principle in OMM sessions for ensuring patient safety?
• Post-treatment sign that indicates improvement after OMM includes:
• What term describes examining the body by touch to diagnose disease?
• Bradycardia is defined as heart rate below what threshold?
• Isoechoic describes which of the following?
• End Feel describes?
• Cranial therapy is commonly indicated for which of the following conditions?
• Direct technique: which statement describes direct treatment?
• A. T. Still is recognized as the founder of which field?
• Which of the following items are included in the standard History and Physical Exam order?
• Which of the following is a pulse site in the neck?
• Anatomic Barrier limits which ROM?
• Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic pathway considered in OMM?
• Where did A. T. Still open his medical school?
• In SOAP notes, which section contains the patient's own reports of symptoms and feelings?
• Which statement is one of the Four Principles of Osteopathic Medicine?
• Cheyne-Stokes Breathing is characterized by what pattern?
• Quality ROM assessment is characterized by which of the following?
• What does the Subjective component primarily include?
• In MET, what type of contraction does the patient perform?
• Which term describes a barrier that is a functional limit that diminishes normal physiological ROM?
• Which principle asserts that rational treatment is based upon understanding of the first three principles?
• Ataxic Breathing is defined as what?
• Passive ROM is determined by which structures?
• Which formatting style is described for the subjective history?
• Chapman reflex points are best described as?
• Normal heart rate tends to do what as we get older?
• Which term describes the range between physiological and anatomic barrier?
• Which term best describes Chapman's points?
• Which autonomic nervous system components are most commonly considered in OMM?
• What is the relationship between ultrasound frequency and attenuation?
• Chapmans reflex points are best described as:
• Normal blood pressure is defined as reading(s) below which threshold?
• Restrictive Barrier is defined as?
• What is the average oral temperature?
• What term refers to structures seen on ultrasound that do not correspond to actual tissue?
• Anatomic Barrier limits which ROM?
• Hypertonic means?
• Which BMI range defines normal weight?
• Which of the following best describes how symmetry is used in palpation for somatic dysfunction?
• In somatic dysfunction classification of the spine, which biomechanical property governs motion?
• Somatic Dysfunction is defined as which of the following?
• Elastic Barrier describes the range between which barriers?
• What is the primary goal of Myofascial Release (MFR)?
• Active ROM is defined as movement that is initiated and completed by the patient without assistance. Which option best matches this definition?
• Which term describes what the patient is feeling and reports?
• Overweight BMI is defined as which range?
• What is the Spring Test used to assess?
• What does attenuation refer to in ultrasound physics?